What is your interpretation of the results from the studies evaluating the effectiveness and safety of fixed ratio insulin-GLP-1 RA combinations?
What are the still unanswered questions about combination basal insulin-GLP-1 RA formulations?
What is the role of PPG as a determinant of achieving comprehensive HA1c level control? And how early in the course of T2D management do you think fixed ratio, combination basal insulin-GLP-1 RA formulations play a role?
What is the physiologic rationale of combining GLP-1 RAs and basal insulin into fixed ratio combination agents such as iGlarLixi and iDegLira?
What is the importance of postprandial hyperglycemia (PPG) and glucose excursions as a management metric and what are the implications for selecting GLP-1 RAs?
Can you provide clinical profiles where there is a strong rationale to move from a regimen consisting of metformin and SGLT2 inhibitor, to a fixed ratio combination of a basal insulin plus GLP-1 RA?
What is the rationale, therefore, of combining GLP-1 RAs and basal insulin into fixed ratio combination agents?
In what setting and in what patient profiles do GLP-1 RAs make most sense? What degrees of HA1c reduction are seen?
Why, in both ADA and AACE guidelines statements, do GLP-1 receptor agonists represent a foundational approach for management of T2D?
What was the physiological, safety, and compliance-focused rationale for combining basal insulin plus GLP-1 RA into a fixed ratio formulation? How would this approach achieve pan-glycemic (FBG and PPG) control?
What are the withdrawal and regimen adherence rates with the GLP-1 RA/insulin regimens, and how do the fixed ratio combination formulations affect GI side effects sometimes encountered with GLP-1 RAs? Is the incidence of side effects lower?
What is the appropriate way to add fixed ratio combination GLP-1 RA/insulin regimens to oral foundational therapy? Are these drugs added sequentially? Should the oral agents be discontinued?